A bilingual child shows age-appropriate English but significant Spanish; which statement best describes language status?

• A. Expressive language disorder
• B. Receptive language disorder
• C. Bilingual language disorder
• D. This child does not present with a language disorder

Answer: (D)

In bilingual development, uneven proficiency across languages is common and not by itself a disorder. A language disorder would show persistent difficulties in understanding or using language that go beyond what’s expected for the child’s age and exposure, affecting communication in one or both languages. Here, English is age-appropriate, and while Spanish is significant, this can reflect environmental use (e.g., home vs. school) rather than an impairment. If the child can understand and express in English at the expected level and there’s no functional communication problem, there isn’t a language disorder. So the best description is that this child does not present with a language disorder.